I just have five questions to ask?

1. In John 8:17-18: ';It is written in your (?) law that the testimony of two men is true. I am one, that bears witness of myself; and the Father that sent me bears witness of me.';



But the Law says no one can bear witness to himself or against himself! Two reliable witnesses beside himself are required. How could Jesus bear witness of Himself %26amp; proceeded as if it were lawful?



Did Jesus try to change/break the Law at this point?





2. In John 5:37: ';And the Father himself which has sent me has borne witness of me. You have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His shape';



But Deuteronomy 5:19-21 says that they heard God the Father %26amp; saw His glory. Moses was shown God's back, which means Moses in fact saw God's shape.



Deuteronomy 5:19-21 ';These words YHVH spoke to all your assembly in the mount, out of the midst of the fire, of the cloud and thick darkness with a great voice.... and you said: 'behold YHVH our almighty has shown us His glory and greatness and we have heard His voice... we have seen today that the Almighty does speak with man, and he (man) lives!';



3.In Romans 4:13: ';For the promise that he should be the heir of the world was not to Abraham or his seed through the Law, but through the righteousness of faith';!



But (Genesis 26:3-5) says -

';And I will establish the oath which I swore to Abraham your father; and I will multiply your seed as the stars of heaven, and will give to your seed all these lands, and by (mentioning) your seed (as an example) shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves; because Abraham hearkened to my voice and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws';!! (Genesis 26:3-5)



4. In Romans 5:13: ';for until the law (before Sinai!) sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law';!



If sin is not imputed when there is no law, i.e. before Moses received YHVH's Law on Sinai, why did He destroy Sodom and Gommorah etc. etc.??



5. In Luke 1:69-71: ';and hath raised up a horn of salvation (Jesus) for us in the house of his servant David... that we should be saved from our enemies and from the hand of all that hate us';!



But where did Jesus save them from Romans?



Explain pleaseI just have five questions to ask?
Jesus came to fulfil the law, not break it.I just have five questions to ask?
I follow a strict policy that even two questions in one are too much. People have too much room to manoeuver around important points and ignore parts of your question if you ask a multiple questions in one.
1) No. YAHOSHUA did not break the law. He clarified it.

2) The Savior YAHOSHUA, and the Creator YHVH were the same person. (see John 1)

3) The promise of YHVH is to give righteousness to them who believe, not to those who follow the Law. Following the Law (Torah) is the result of salvation, not it's cause.

4)The law began at the beginning. Not at Sinai. Adam knew (and broke) the Law, for that is the definition of sin.

5)YAHOSHUA saved them from the enemy Satan, if they chose to follow Him. (His kingdom is not of this world, but a kingdom of eternal life.)